NPLEX Minor Office Procedures Practice Test

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• A patient develops severe, life-threatening blistering with fever and conjunctivitis after starting a drug; most consistent with
• Which statement correctly matches the organism types for tinea versus candida infections?
• Indicated treatment for infections that result in a collection of purulent material in a circumscribed and closed cavity.
• What is the best treatment for a toxic reaction?
• Which of the following is an early sign of local anesthetic toxicity?
• Four cardinal signs of slight finger flexion, fusiform swelling of the finger, pain on passive or active extension of the finger, and tenderness along the tendon sheath into the palm indicate:
• Which statement about the vertical mattress stitch is true?
• Which practice reduces healing time?
• What device is ratcheted to hold the needle and suture during suturing?
• Elliptical excisions should ideally be made with a #____ blade, initially cutting ____ to the skin.
• What is the duration of action for bupivacaine?
• What is the treatment for a brown recluse bite?
• Which instrument is a very fine scissor used for dissecting and trimming skin, and should not be used to cut sutures or bandages?
• Characteristic lesion in erythema multiforme is
• What is your ddx: Superficial cellulitis involving lymphatics. Usually caused by group A beta-hemolytic Streptococcus pyogenes (GAS). Painful, raised sharply demarcated 'orange peel' lesion.
• This stitch is great for everting skin edges and precise approximation of wound edges with little tension.
• This stitch is used for triangular flaps:
• Which drug is oral: tretinoin or isotretinoin?
• Simple rupture by pressure, simple aspiration, and surgical excision are all potential treatments for:
• Contraindication to I&D include:
• Which statement about epinephrine when used with local anesthetics is true?
• Which of the following conditions can be treated with cryotherapy and has a low risk of complications?
• Pityriasis rosea has been linked to which infectious agents?
• Which of the following are causes of hematoma formation?
• Which statement best describes a lipoma?
• Genital warts are most commonly caused by which HPV types?
• Symmetric vesicular hand and foot dermatitis preceded by itching, with palms red and sweating and a high incidence of nickel allergy, is most consistent with:
• True or False: If removing an unusual or inflamed skin tag, send to pathology?
• Which regional block is useful for anesthesia to the tip of the little finger?
• Which lesion is a subcutaneous movable fatty growth and may be hereditary?
• In which scenario is color of the solution NOT a main pharmacologic property to consider when choosing a local anesthetic?
• Onychomycosis is treated with a combination of urea paste dissolution and antifungal medications. Which option is Onychomycosis?
• Which scalpel blade is used for stabbing and incising the skin in incision and drainage procedures?
• Railroad-track scarring is a potential complication of which stitch?
• Based on a chronic recurrent autoimmune skin disorder with sun exposure preceding lesions, IgG and IgM deposition in the skin, and female predominance with onset in the 30s, which diagnosis is most likely?
• Which statement about suture sizing is true?
• Granuloma annulare histology shows which feature?
• Which skin cancer is the fastest growing metastatic skin cancer?
• Which suture is most resistant, causing more drag but holds knots better?
• The vertical mattress stitch tends to invert tissue. Which choice correctly matches this concept?
• When removing sutures, which method is correct?
• What is bupivacaine used for?
• Contraindication to I&D include:
• Which of the following is metabolized in the liver?
• The destruction of all living microorganisms including bacterial spores is called what?
• Granuloma annulare presents as a ring of small, firm, flesh-colored or red papules on the lateral or dorsal surfaces of the hands and feet, beginning with a flesh-colored papule with central involution and histology showing collagen degeneration. Which diagnosis fits this description?
• Granuloma annulare histology shows which feature?
• For the trunk, legs, feet or scalp, use the following type of suture and remove after how many days?
• The most common organism causing wound infections is:
• What type of forceps can be used to reduce trauma to skin edges when suturing?
• Which instrument is used for removing scalpel blades, holding tourniquets, clamping vessels, and holding skin tags and toenails, and may be curved or straight?
• Stevens-Johnson syndrome mortality rate and management
• All of the following are variables that determine amount of time to leave sutures in EXCEPT:
• A poxvirus infection seen in children with small, harmless skin growths that start as a dimple and later enlarge, waxy with a central pit, and can spread person-to-person is:
• Which material is a nonabsorbable monofilament suture?
• Which surface feature is commonly seen in verruca vulgaris (common warts)?
• Which statement correctly describes tungsten carbide tipped needle holders?
• In addition to hypotension, epinephrine use can cause vasospasm in which tissues?
• Which scalpel blade is best for larger, thick, and tough skin on the back?
• Which option is the best single choice indicating the most common fundamental wound closure technique?
• Indications for adding epinephrine to local anesthetics include all the following EXCEPT:
• Apart from hypotension, what is another concern with the use of epinephrine in local anesthesia?
• Which internal chronic diseases may cause urticaria?
• Which is the most common type of skin cancer?
• A 10 mL (10 cc) vial of 1% lidocaine contains how many milligrams of lidocaine?
• Molluscum contagiosum lesions are best described as:
• Which of the following is a risk factor for hematoma formation due to poor hemostasis?
• What is the most common, slow-growing, rarely metastatic skin cancer?
• Actinic keratosis appears indurated on sun-exposed skin and is rarely pre-malignant.
• Stasis dermaitis is usually the result of what?
• Which is a potential cause of hematomas?
• What scalpel blade size attaches to a reusable handle and is often disposable?
• Actinic keratoses are most commonly found on which areas?
• If cavernous hemangioma is suspected, what is the recommended management?
• Which term describes the process of completely removing microorganisms, including spores, from instruments?
• Which is a contraindication for shave biopsy?
• Elliptical excision should have a length to width ratio of _____ with corners at _____ angles?
• What is a risk factor for developing melanoma?
• Which nerve block yields anesthesia to the lateral proximal thumb?
• Which is long-acting among local anesthetics?
• Which nerve block is injected into the anatomical snuff box to anesthesia the lateral aspect of the proximal thumb?
• Greasy, scaly, or verrucous flat papules to plaques that appear stuck-on describe which lesion?
• Indications for hyfrecation include:
• Discoid lupus is more common in which demographic?
• Adsons forceps can be used with teeth or without teeth. What is the primary difference?
• Urea paste dissolution and anti-fungal oral medications are appropriate treatments for:
• Hemostats are also known by which of the following names?
• In adults, which organisms most often cause cellulitis?
• Wounds that are too contaminated to close initially but may be closed after 3-4 days are categorized as which type?
• Which sign may occur as a progression with increasing local anesthetic blood levels?
• Which is a disadvantage of the simple interrupted suture?
• Disposable gloves should be decontaminated for reuse.
• Which forceps are designed for handling tissue without teeth?
• Which of the following suture is the finest (has the smallest diameter)?
• Which condition presents with red streaks toward regional lymph nodes?
• Which cyst tends to occur on the scalp as a movable subcutaneous nodule with firmer keratin content and may pop out during surgery?
• What is the typical size range of the Harold patch?
• Under OSHA standards, is mouth pipetting of blood allowed?
• Which of the following is a correct pairing for a lesion type and its origin?
• What scalpel blade size is used for stabbing or incising the skin in an incision and drainage (I&D) procedure?
• The most common triggers for urticaria are
• Actinic keratoses are best described as which of the following?
• Which term describes a benign flat pigmented spot on the skin?
• Epithelial tumors caused by HPV, presenting as flesh-colored papules that evolve to gray-brown, hyperkeratotic growths with black dots on the surface are called:
• Pemphigus vulgaris typically presents with which feature?
• What is a common adverse effect of lidocaine and bupivacaine?
• Which of the following is a nutrient that is known to promote wound healing:
• How do sutures work?
• Which diagnostic test helps differentiate pityriasis alba from vitiligo and tinea versicolor?
• A genital infection presents with soft, moist, skin-colored papules that progress to cauliflower-like masses. The most likely diagnosis is:
• Which is NOT a potential cause of wound infection?
• What is the most common, fundamental suture technique?
• Toothed needle tips versus smooth tips: which statement is true?
• Tinea versicolor is associated with a yeast-like organism named:
• What is your ddx: Red streaks from infected area to the armpit or groin (may vary in intensity.) Throbbing pain along the affected area Fever (100 to 104) Rigors / Chills Myalgia Headache Loss of appetite
• In discoid lupus, which immunoglobulins are deposited in the skin?
• Lidocaine and bupivacaine are prototypes for which type of local anesthetics?
• In medical terminology, infection around the nail bed is called?
• Which of the following is included in the OSHA standards summary?
• What may be elevated in atopic dermatitis?
• This easy and most versatile stitch can cause 'railroad track' scarring.
• Cryotherapy and biopsy order: which sequence is correct?
• How many milligrams are in 1 mL of a 1% lidocaine solution?
• Procaine is an ester local anesthetic.
• Nikolsky's sign is associated with which condition?
• Children and young adults may present with round or oval fine scaling plaques leaving pale marks on the face, neck, and arms; KOH testing helps differentiate this from vitiligo or tinea versicolor. This condition is:
• Which symptom is a later sign of local anesthetic toxicity if blood levels rise?
• Actinic keratosis can progress to squamous cell carcinoma.
• This is the most dangerous of all the malignant skin tumors.
• Which spider's venom contains sphingomyelinase D?
• Which agent is commonly used as a topical treatment in acne management to reduce bacteria and inflammation?
• What type of suture technique can eliminate dead space?
• Which suture has less resistance as it passes through tissue and ties easily but knots may slip?
• Which of the following is a benign, flat pigmented spot on the skin?
• Which of the following is a NONABSORBABLE MONOFILAMENT:
• Which patient condition increases the risk of hematoma formation after wound closure?
• Which spider bite is classically associated with a delayed onset intense pain due to a neurotoxin?
• Cryotherapy is indicated for which of the following?
• Describe an atypical nevus?
• What content is found inside an epidermal inclusion cyst?
• A benign tumor of encapsulated fat arising from the subcutaneous fascia.
• T or F: if you are going to do cryotherapy and need a biopsy you should do the biopsy first.
• Diagnosis of pemphigus vulgaris is supported by which test?
• Which cyst characteristically pops out during surgery due to its contents?
• What is the standard management for impetigo?
• Which skin condition is characterized by a herald patch and a Christmas tree–like distribution of lesions?
• Which agent is primarily metabolized by plasma enzymes?
• Which blade is used for elliptical excisions?
• What is the concern with atopic dermatitis as described in the material?
• Which condition is characterized by target-like lesions with central blister and often self-limiting?
• Autoimmune skin changes with white patches due to loss of pigment best describe:
• Which of the following is an indication for NON-ABSORBABLE deep suture?
• Which antibiotic is listed as a common agent to treat wound infections?
• Drug eruptions most commonly occur within
• Granulation tissue formation occurs during which phase of wound healing?
• In dehiscence due to infection, which step is most appropriate first?
• Which skin cancer is the most commonly diagnosed and tends to grow slowly?
• A skin infection characterized by golden honey-colored crusts and usually caused by Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes is known as:
• In wound dehiscence without infection or hematoma, what is the recommended management?
• What blade size is similar to the #14 blade but larger, for tougher skin such as on the back or scalp?
• Which lesion is a subcutaneous movable nodule consisting of fatty tissue that may be hereditary and can recur after removal?
• Which of the following is a sign of local anesthesia cardiovascular toxicity?
• What is the most common cause of toxic reactions to local anesthetics?
• Which forceps are used for handling tissue and may be with teeth or smooth?
• Chronic yeast overgrowth on the skin, not contagious, producing white, brown, or pink scaling oval patches on the trunk is:
• Which diagnosis is characterized by brown, firm papules on the legs that may arise after trauma due to fibroblast overgrowth?
• Is isotretinoin teratogenic?
• Which of the following is a correct description of how to remove stitches?
• Which factor does NOT increase the time required for wound healing?
• Which lesion is often mistaken for melanoma but is actually benign?
• Regarding Universal Precautions, which statement is false?
• Pityriasis rosea most commonly affects which age group?
• Basal cell carcinoma typically presents as
• Which stitch is placed invisibly in the dermis and is best for minimal tension, clean linear wounds?
• Which suture material is most likely to provoke tissue reaction?
• What is your ddx: Infection of the dermis and subcutaneous tissue following trauma or skin lesions.
• Procaine is metabolized to PABA in peripheral tissues and plasma. Which is a true statement about this metabolism?
• Disruption of blood vessels describes which phenomenon in wound healing?
• What is the initial management concern for pemphigus vulgaris?
• Which suture size is used for trunk, legs, feet or scalp wounds and is removed after 7-14 days?
• In psoriasis, removal of the scale can cause pinpoint bleeding. What is this phenomenon called?
• What blade size is used for excision, trimming, and dissecting tissue?
• Which infestation is described as very pruritic, especially at night, with burrows on hands, wrists, elbows, axilla, umbilicus, groin/penis?
• Nylon is what type of suture:
• Which lesion is a movable, skin-colored subcutaneous cyst on the face, back, ears, or groin, containing a keratin-filled sac and may become inflamed?
• The most common organism causing wound infections is:
• Which anesthetic is an ester prototype?
• When suturing a wound, which measures can reduce tension?
• Which suture material is preferred for simple interrupted and vertical mattress stitches?
• Which suture technique is the most common method for skin closure?
• Which of the following suture types has the highest likelihood of tissue reaction?
• What is the difference between erysipelas and impetigo?
• This stitch is placed in the dermis and is not visible. It works best in wounds where there is minimal tension, and in clean, linear wounds:
• In the event of a toxic reaction to local anesthesia, the recommended treatment is:
• Which nerve block is useful for anesthesia to the tip of the little finger?